Leukocytes That Stain Pale Blue With Sternheimermalbin Stain and Exhibit Brownian Movement Are

Select the one best response to each question!

Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:

Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except:

All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:

The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are:

When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:

Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?

Which of the following are reported as number per LPF?

The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?

Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing light?

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except:

The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

Leukocytes that stain pale blue with SternheimerMalbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:

When pyuria is detected in a sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of:

Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:

The largest cells in the urine sediment are:

A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the:

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:

Increased transitional cells are indicative of:

A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:

The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:

A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:

The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:

The primary component of urinary mucus is:

The majority of casts are formed in the:

Cylindroiduria refers to the presence of:

A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except:

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except:

WBC casts are primarily associated with:

The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily:

When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:

The presence of fatty casts is associated with:

Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:

The observation of broad casts represents:

All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals except:

The most valuable initial aid for the identification of crystals in a urine specimen is:

Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except:

All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:

Differentiation between casts and fibers can usually be made using:

The quizzes about Microscopic Examination of Urine (46 questions)

1. Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:
A. Provide results as soon as possible
B. Predict the type of urinary casts present
C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis
D. Decrease the need for polarized microscopy
2. Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except:
A. Preparation of the urine sediment
B. Amount of sediment analyzed
C. Method of reporting
D. Identification of formed elements
3. All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:
A. Braking the centrifuge
B. Failing to mix the specimen
C. Dilute alkaline urine
D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens
4. The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are:
A. Radius of rotor head and rpm
B. Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation
C. Diameter of rotor head and rpm
D. RPM and time of centrifugation
5. When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?
A. Casts
B. RBCs
C. WBCs
D. Bacteria
6. Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:
A. 4
B. 10
C. 40
D. 100
7. Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?
A. Centering screws
B. Aperture diaphragm
C. Rheostat
D. Condenser aperture diaphrgam
8. Which of the following are reported as number per LPF?
A. RBCs
B. WBCs
C. Crystals
D. Casts
9. The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:
A. Increase visibility of sediment constituents
B. Change the constituents refractive index
C. Decrease precipitation of crystals
D. Delineate constituent structures
10. Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. Both B and C
11. Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?
A. Cholesterol
B. Neutral fats
C. Triglycerides
D. Both B and C
12. Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing light?
A. Cholesterol
B. Neutral fats
C. Triglycerides
D. Both A and B
13. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
A. Neutrophils
B. Renal tubular cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
14. Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline
15. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
16. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
A. Glomerular bleeding
B. Renal calculi
C. Traumatic injury
D. Coagulation disorders
17. Leukocytes that stain pale blue with SternheimerMalbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:
A. Indicative of pyelonephritis
B. Basophils
C. Mononuclear leukocytes
D. Glitter cells
18. Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:
A. Yeast cells
B. Squamous epithelial cells
C. Pollen grains
D. Renal tubular cells
19. When pyuria is detected in a sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of:
A. RBCs
B. Bacteria
C. Hyaline casts
D. Mucus
20. Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:
A. Collecting duct
B. Vagina
C. Bladder
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
21. The largest cells in the urine sediment are:
A. Squamous epithlial cells
B. Urothelial epithelial cells
C. Cuboidal epithelial cells
D. Columnar epithelial cells
22. A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the:
A. Cuboidal cell
B. Clue cell
C. Caudate cell
D. Columnar cell
23. Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:
A. Spherical
B. Caudate
C. Convoluted
D. Polyhedral
24. Increased transitional cells are indicative of:
A. Catheterization
B. Malignancy
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Both A and B
25. A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular
epithelial cells is:
A. Elongated structure
B. Centrally located nucleus
C. Spherical appearance
D. Eccentrically located nucleus
26. Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin granules
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Myoglobin
27. The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
A. Histiocyte
B. Urothelial cell
C. Monocyte
D. Renal tubular cell
28. A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but
does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:
A. Contains cholesterol
B. Is not an oval fat body
C. Contains neutral fats
D. Is contaminated with immersion oil
29. The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Liver disorders
30. The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Tamm-horsfall protein
D. Orthostatic protein
31. The majority of casts are formed in the:
A. Proximal convoluted tubules
B. Ascending loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubules
D. Collecting ducts
32. Cylindroiduria refers to the presence of:
A. Cylindrical renal tubular cells
B. Mucus resembling casts
C. Hyaline and waxy casts
D. All types of casts
33. A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except:
A. Hyaline casts
B. Granular casts
C. RBC casts
D. WBC casts
34. Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except:
A. Free-floating RBCs
B. Intact RBCs in the cast
C. Presence of a cast matrix
D. A positive reagent strip blood reaction
35. WBC casts are primarily associated with:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Cystitis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Viral infections
36. The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily:
A. Elongated
B. Cuboidal
C. Round
D. Columnar
37. When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:
A. Embedded in a clear matrix
B. Embedded in a granular matrix
C. Attached to the surface of a matrix
D. Stained by components of the urine filtrate
38. The presence of fatty casts is associated with:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Crush injuries
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. All of the above
39. Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:
A. Cellular lysosomes
B. Degenerated cells
C. Protein aggregates
D. Gram-positive cocci
40. All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:
A. Represent extreme urine stasis
B. May have a brittle consistency
C. Require staining to be visualized
D. Contain degenerated granules
41. The observation of broad casts represents:
A. Destruction of tubular walls
B. Dehydraton and high fever
C. Formation in the collecting ducts
D. Both A and C
42. All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals except:
A. Protein concentration
B. pH
C. Solute concentration
D. Temperature
43. The most valuable initial aid for the identification of crystals in a urine specimen is:
A. pH
B. Solubility
C. Staining
D. Polarized microscopy
44. Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except:
A. Bilirubin
B. Leucine
C. Cystine
D. Tyrosine
45. All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:
A. Uric acid
B. Cholesterol
C. Radiographic dye
D. Cystine
46. Differentiation between casts and fibers can usually be made using:
A. Solubility characteristics
B. Patient history
C. Polarized light
D. Fluorescent light
47. Match the following crystals seen in acidic urine with their description/identifying characteristics:
____Amorphous urates 1. Envelopes
____Uric acid 2. Thin needles
____Calcium oxalate 3. Yellow-brown, monhydrate whetstone
____Calcium oxalate 4. Pink sediment dihydrate 5. Ovoid
48. Match the following crystals seen in alkaline urine with their description/identifying characteristics:
____Triple phosphate 1. Yellow granules
____Amorphous phosphate 2. Thin prisms
____Calcium phosphate 3. "Coffin lids"
____Ammonium biurate 4. Dumbbell shape
____Calcium carbonate 5. White precipitate
6. Thorny apple
49. Match the following abnormal crystals with their description/identifying characteristics:
____Cystine 1. Bundles following refrigeration
____Tyrosine 2. Highly alkaline pH
____Cholesterol 3. Bright yellow clumps
____Leucine 4. Hexagonal plates
____Ampicillin 5. Flat plates, high specific gravity
____Radiographic 6. Concentric circles, radial
dye striations
____Bilirubin 7. Notched corners
8. Fine needles seen in liver disease

50. Match the following types of microscopy with their descriptions:
____Bright-field 1. Indirect light is reflected off the object
____Phase 2. Objects split light into two beams
____Polarized 3. Low refractive index objects may be overlooked
____Dark-field 4. Three-dimensional images
____Fluorescent 5. Forms halo of light around object
____Interference 6. Detects electrons emitted contrast from objects
7. Detects specific wavelengths of light emitted from objects

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Source: https://medquizzes.net/the-quizzes-about-microscopic-examination-of-urine-46-questions/

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